University of Phoenix Digital Crime and Terrorism Quiz Preferred knowledge in computer criminal justice system. Please answer thoroughly. Submit one at a t

University of Phoenix Digital Crime and Terrorism Quiz Preferred knowledge in computer criminal justice system. Please answer thoroughly. Submit one at a time when done. Thank you!
Reference:
Digital Crime and Digital TerrorismFILLER TEXTRobert W. Taylor, Eric J. Fritsch, John Liederbach, 2015FILLER TEXTPearsonFILLER TEXT 1. Child pornography is an example of which type of computer crime?
a. computer as a target
b. computer as an instrument of a crime
c. computer as incidental to crime
d. crimes associated with the prevalence of computers
2. Which of following is not a common theme to emerge from the research on the problems of
computer crime?
a. computer fraud within government agencies
b. the work of hackers
c. incidences of network incursion
d. behavioral approaches of cybercriminals
3. Which of the following is most true?
a. Case studies offer generalizations on cybercriminals.
b. Most research of cybercrime focuses on behavioral approaches.
c. Early researchers felt that computer crime would be a large problem.
d. A great deal of effort is dedicated to computer security.
4. Which of the following is not considered in the calculation of costs associated with each type of
computer crime?
a. reputational damage
b. anti-virus software
c. loss of revenue
d. All of the above are considered in the calculation of costs.
5. Which of the following is most true?
a. Estimates concerning the costs of cybercrime are derived from crime statistics.
b. It can take months or even years to identify an actual monetary value for the loss of intellectual
property.
c. Estimates of costs are easy to calculate across different categories of computer crime.
d. Employers always report computer crimes committed by employees.
6. According to the authors of the text, another term for digital crime is:
a. malicious software
b. Stuxnet
c. cybercrime
d. identity theft
7. What major category of information warfare/cyberterror does “data hiding” fall into?
a. infrastructure attacks
b. information attacks
c. technological facilitation
d. promotion
8. What major category of information warfare/cyberterror does “cryptography” fall into?
a. infrastructure attacks
b. information attacks
c. technological facilitation
d. promotion
9. What major category of information warfare/cyberterror does “recruiting” fall into?
a. infrastructure attacks
b. information attacks
c. technological facilitation
d. promotion
10. Which of the following is least true?
a. Information warfare is considered necessary to the Chinese government to support its objectives and
strategy.
b. China views cyberspace as a way of compensating for its deficiency in conventional warfare.
c. Cyber warfare is incorporated in military training in China.
d. The Chinese government restricts the use of cyber warfare to the Chinese military.
11. The greatest threat to civil aviation security is:
a. identity theft among employees
b. hacking into communication systems
c. heavy reliance on other types of infrastructure
d. malicious insiders
12. Which of the following is not a wave in the development of warfare as identified by Alvin Toffler?
a. information wave
b. agrarian wave
c. renaissance wave
d. industrial wave
13. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of deterrence theory?
a. Individuals are rational actors.
b. Individuals view risks of particular crimes as unpleasant.
c. Offenders must be aware of the penalty for particular crimes.
d. All of the above are assumptions of deterrence.
14. According to Kohlberg, right corresponds to seeing one’s own needs met, taking responsibility for
oneself, and allowing others to do the same in which stage of moral development?
a. social contract, legalistic orientation stage
b. law and order orientation stage
c. punishment and obedience orientation stage
d. hedonistic orientation stage
15. According to Kohlberg, which two stages of moral development are completed by age 7?
a. social contract, legalistic orientation stage and punishment and obedience orientation stage
b. hedonistic orientation stage and interpersonal concordance stage
c. law and order orientation stage and hedonistic orientation stage
d. punishment and obedience orientation stage and hedonistic orientation stage
16. Which of the following is NOT a personality characteristic conducive to crime identified by the
Gluecks?
a. lack of self-esteem
b. impulsivity
c. lack of self-control
d. resentment
17. According to Merton, a(n) ___________ accepts the goal of economic success but rejects the
institutionalized means to obtain it.
a. ritualist
b. conformist
c. innovator
d. rebel
18. An individual that engages in computer crime, fraud, and robbery in an effort to obtain financial
success has adopted which form of Merton’s modes of adaptation?
a. ritualism
b. conformity
c. retreatism
d. innovation
19. Which of the following is defined as a malicious hacker?
a. cracker
b. script kiddie
c. white hat
d. gray hat
20. Which of the following is vulnerable to a distributed denial of service attacks?
a. cracker
b. script kiddie
c. white hat
d. gray hat
21. Which of the following is defined as a hacker who performs both legal and illegal hacker activities?
a. cracker
b. script kiddie
c. white hat
d. gray hat
22. Which of the following forms of technology expanded the scope of hacker activities?
a. personal computers
b. computer networks
c. modems
d. All of the above.
23. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the original phone phreaks?
a. paranoia
b. counterculture attitude of the 1960s and 1970s
c. restriction to the technology of the phone company
d. blue boxing
24. Which of the following is NOT a social engineering tactic?
a. camaraderie
b. identity theft
c. bluster
d. technical detail
25. An insider using passwords stolen from coworkers in order to conceal changes he made to credit
reporting data in exchange for money is an example of which form of attack method?
a. social engineering
b. authorized use of an organization’s systems
c. bypassing security and control processes
d. comprised accounts
1. The U.S. Department of Commerce has estimated that employee theft played a role in ________ of
business failures.
a. 55%
b. 75%
c. 85%
d. 95%
2. Losses from insider fraud are primarily due to:
a. misappropriation of cash only by employees
b. misappropriation of cash only by nonemployees
c. misappropriation of cash and/or noncash assets by employees
d. misappropriation of cash and/or noncash assets by nonemployees
3. When insiders conspire with or are recruited by outside organized crime groups, the fraud is typically
related to:
a. financial gains resulting from system manipulation
b. financial gains resulting from data manipulation
c. bulk exfiltration of data to the outsiders
d. All of the above.
4. Which of the following is NOT a milestone of fraud cases according to the CERT Insider Threat Study
on Illicit Cyber Activity Involving Fraud?
a. applying for a job at the target company
b. getting hired by the target company
c. the target company detecting fraud
d. the target company reporting the fraud
5. According to the CERT Insider Threat Study on Illicit Cyber Activity Involving Fraud, what is the
average time between beginning fraud and the company detecting the fraud?
a. approximately 6 months
b. approximately 12 months
c. approximately 24 months
d. approximately 32 months
6. According to CERT, the primary reason for an act of sabotage is:
a. unmet expectations
b. becoming disgruntled after being demoted
c. an excessive amount of privileges
d. None of the above.
7. Which country has become the most active source of national and industrial espionage?
a. United States
b. China
c. Russia
d. Japan
8. ___________ is the act of concealing the source of assets that have been illegally obtained.
a. Money laundering
b. Identity theft
c. Embezzlement
d. Confidence schemes
9. Traditional money laundering techniques include all of the following except:
a. physical transport of cash from one location to another
b. electronic transfer of “e-cash”
c. “smurfing”
d. transformation of hard currency to real property or merchandise
10. During what decade did electronic funds transfers (EFTs) begin to expand money laundering
opportunities?
a. 1940s
b. 1960s
c. 1980s
d. 2000s
11. The “Nigerian 419” scheme is primarily what type of computer crime?
a. Internet auction fraud
b. confidence scheme
c. “urban legend”
d. money laundering scam
12. The Bank Secrecy Act of 1970 requires that financial institutions keep records of cash transactions
over what amount?
a. $100
b. $500
c. $10,000
d. $1,000,000
13. Macro viruses are most commonly associated with:
a. typical business software applications
b. e-mail programs
c. Internet browser programs
d. floppy disks
14. Unlike a traditional virus, the unique feature of a worm is that it:
a. infects the memory of a computer
b. is self-replicating
c. relies on user intervention
d. cannot spread without someone opening an attachment
15. Which of the following is NOT a type of Trojan horse discussed in the text?
a. remote access Trojans
b. software detection killers
c. spyware Trojans
d. destructive Trojans
16. Which of the following type of Trojan horse turns a victim’s computer into a zombie server available
to the whole world or to the attacker only?
a. remote access Trojans
b. destructive Trojans
c. DoS attack Trojans
d. proxy/wingate Trojans
17. An unauthorized program typically contained within a legitimate program is known as a:
a. worm
b. macro
c. Trojan
d. Sparta
18. Malicious code attacks that combine elements of worms, Trojans, and viruses are known as:
a. blended threats
b. mixed model threats
c. holistic threats
d. comprehensive threat of infection (CTI)
19. Which of the following is a major obstacle for law enforcement in investigating Internet
exploitation?
a. The offenders rarely repeat their crimes.
b. The Internet offers relative anonymity.
c. It is tough to find child pornography on the Internet.
d. There is little evidence once the person is identified.
20. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the type of youths targeted for sexual solicitations and
approaches?
a. Girls are targeted at almost twice the rate of boys.
b. Most youths targeted met the aggressor online.
c. Most youths targeted were 14 or older.
d. Most report the incidents to local law enforcement.
21. Which of the following is MOST true regarding victims of cyberbullying?
a. Whites are less likely to be bullied than minorities.
b. Victims always report their experiences.
c. Victims are often bullied by their current or former friends.
d. Most victims will not talk about their experiences with friends.
22. Which of the following is not an offense or definition of offense created by the Protection of
Children from Sexual Predators Act?
a. definition of sex tourism
b. use of interstate facilities to transmit information about a minor
c. transfer of obscene materials to minors
d. definition of sexual activity
23. The Supreme Court decided that two sections of the Child Pornography Prevention Act were
unconstitutional in:
a. In re John Doe
b. Ashcroft v. Free Speech Coalition
c. Ashcroft v. NAMBLE
d. None of the above.
24. Which of the following is NOT part of Finkelhor’s four-part model that enunciates how a sex offense
occurs between an offender and a child victim?
a. A potential offender must have some motivation to sexually abuse a child.
b. Any internal inhibitions against acting on the motivation to engage in sexual assault must be
overcome.
c. Any external impediments to acting on the impulse to abuse must be overcome.
d. A potential offender must avoid detection from law enforcement.
25. Which subtype of child molester typically leads the most stable life?
a. regressed child molester
b. morally indiscriminate child molester
c. inadequate child molester
d. sexually indiscriminate child molester
1. A ____________ is a court document signed by a judge that instructs the police to perform a specific
task.
a. search warrant
b. court order
c. judicial mandate
d. search order
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of intelligence?
a. proactive
b. arrests are rarely made
c. sources are known and open
d. reports are closed
3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of investigation?
a. proactive
b. reports are generally open
c. sources are known and open
d. arrests are made based on evidence and facts
4. Historically, the missing dimension in quality intelligence has been:
a. the proper equipment
b. the lack of reliable sources
c. analysis
d. the lack of proper training for officers
5. Which of the following is NOT a lawful limitation on speech?
a. obscenity
b. incitement
c. libel/Slander
d. hate
6. The most famous instance of an organization placing specific, personal information on a website is the
____________ Files case.
a. Nuremberg
b. Paris
c. Budapest
d. Vienna
7. In order to seize an item in plain view, an officer must:
a. see the item
b. immediately recognize that the item is subject to seizure
c. be legally present in the area from which the item is viewed
d. All of the above.
8. A search warrant allows an investigator to search a hard drive for evidence of fraud. During the
analysis, the investigator discovers child pornography on the hard drive. The child pornography may be
seized under which doctrine?
a. exigent circumstances
b. searches by private citizens
c. plain view
d. search incident to arrest
9. The burden of proving exigent circumstances falls on which of the following?
a. prosecutors
b. law enforcement
c. the defendant
d. All of the above.
10. Which of the following is an exception contained in Title III?
a. the extension of an office computer exception
b. the unattended computer exception
c. the computer trespasser exception
d. All of the above.
11. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act creates two categories of computer service. The two
categories are:
a. Electronic Communication Service and Remote Computing Service
b. Wireless Service and Remote Service
c. Remote Service and Internet Service
d. In Transit Service and Transmission Service
12. Which is the primary federal statute targeting unauthorized computer use?
a. USA PATRIOT Act
b. Copyright Act
c. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
d. Title III
13. Which federal agency houses the Customs Cyber Smuggling Center (3C)?
a. ICE
b. DOE
c. The Secret Service
d. U.S. Postal Inspectors
14. The ____________ provides victims of Internet fraud of mechanism to report suspicious activities
online.
a. InfraGard
b. Consumer Sentinel
c. ICCC or IC3
d. CCIPS
15. According to a recent survey, what percentage of local police agencies has experienced a
“measurable increase” in the reporting of computer and electronic crimes?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 80%
16. What factors have limited the ability of local law enforcement agencies to respond to the growing
threat of computer crime?
a. lack of training
b. lack of diagnostic equipment
c. lack of specialized personnel
d. All of the above.
17. According to surveys, what percentage of local law enforcement agencies do not have adequate
capabilities to read encrypted evidence:
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 90%
18. Which is the lead agency responsible for monitoring and protecting all of the federal government’s
computer networks from acts of cyberterrorism?
a. FBI
b. Secret Service
c. DHS
d. NSA
19. Which of these is an IP address?
a. AA-0A-10-AB-AF-00
b. 192.684.168.255
c. 192.168.0.5
d. None of the above.
20. Which of these is a MAC address?
a. 00-AF-03-05-0E-B9
b. 192.684.168.255
c. 192.168.0.5
d. None of the above.
21. The best source for technical information needed in a network investigation is:
a. any computer expert
b. an experienced computer crime investigator
c. the library
d. the system administrator for the system in question
22. Minimization:
a. ensures that we do not do more harm than good to the victim
b. ensures we do not scare future victims with heavy-handed seizures
c. means reducing the amount of intrusion to the target system
d. All of the above.
23. Which method of seizure is not consistent with minimization?
a. on-the-spot imaging of discs containing evidence
b. seizing the computer system
c. copying a backup tape
d. taking images of a working RAID disc
24. ______________ location electronic crime scene search and seizure is the most fundamental skill set
of an electronic crimes investigator.
a. Single
b. Multiple
c. Network
d. All of the above.
25. ____________ are designed primarily to log network traffic and examine it for known patterns
indicating attacks.
a. Firewalls
b. Antivirus programs
c. Intrusion detection systems (IDs)
d. Key logs
1. A file system is part of the computer’s:
a. stored data
b. retrieved data
c. operating system
d. None of the above.
2. Which of the following statements is true of storage media?
a. Storage media come in a variety of sizes, shapes, and capacities.
b. Direct access media (e.g., disks) are faster than sequential access media (e.g., tape).
c. The speed of backup media often provides a clue as to the use of the media.
d. Both a and b are true.
3. A good forensics package must:
a. come with built-in support and training
b. have a report-writing feature
c. cover each of the basic forensic functions such as importing data, hashing, wiping, and imaging
d. run on any type of computer used by the forensic analyst
4. Unlike other systems, the hard drive relies on ____________.
a. tracks
b. file systems
c. cylinders
d. physical motion
5. A ____________ copy reproduces every bit of information found on the evidence drive.
a. bit stream
b. logical
c. digital
d. standard
6. Each step of an analysis protocol must be performed how many times?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
7. According to the National Institute of Justice, what is NOT a common form of evidence for child abuse
or exploitation?
a. video and still photo cameras and media
b. digital camera software
c. notes or records of chat sessions
d. list or records of computer intrusion software
8. The ___________ is the benchmark for speed and the organizing factor in nonvolatile storage.
a. cache
b. processor
c. RAM
d. hard drive
9. Which of the following would NOT be considered part of a formal risk analysis?
a. terrorism threats
b. sabotage
c. natural disasters
d. All of the above would be considered part of a formal risk analysis.
10. Threats to ____________ are threats that actually alter data.
a. authenticity
b. confidentiality
c. integrity
d. security
11. What is NOT a category of threats to information systems?
a. authenticity
b. confidentiality
c. integrity
d. security
12. ___________ is/are the most important security measure a company or individual can take.
a. Risk analysis
b. Backup
c. Passwords
d. Encryption
13. Which of the following is NOT a method to security wireless networks?
a. HTTPS
b. WEP
c. WPA
d. MAC
14. This type of security technology is devices or software that act as a checkpoint between the network
and individual users.
a. backups
b. firewalls
c. encryption
d. passwords
15. _____________ allows a firewall to block traffic from a known bad location.
a. Perimeter firewall
b. Host-based firewall
c. Packet filtering
d. Stateful inspection
16. _____________ is an evolution in IT technology sometimes referred to as the “next generation of
firewall technology.”
a. Packet filtering
b. Perimeter firewall
c. Stateful inspection
d. Deep packet inspection
17. In the future, terrorists will likely use all of the following tactics, except:
a. EMP
b. HERF
c. malicious software and broad virus attacks
d. attacking personal computers to instill fear
18. A U.S. Department of Defense study on emerging threats to national security observed that the field
of battle is increasingly moving toward:
a. religious issues
b. economic issues
c. territorial issues
d. All of the above.
19. The National Computer Security Survey found that ____________% of the businesses sampled
experience at least one cybercrime in 2005.
a. 23
b. 59
c. 67
d. 78
20. Approximately ____________% of the population is covered by NIBRS reporting.
a. 100
b. 29
c. 85
d. 12
21. Which offense is most likely to touch the largest number of community members in the near future?
a. fraud
b. espionage
c. cyber bullying
d. hacking
22. The greatest number of Int…
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